General Radiotelephone Operator License (GROL)

The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and AC ammeter is called:

What is the basic unit of electrical power?

What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?

What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

What formula would determine the inductive reactance of a coil if frequency and coil inductance are known?

What is the term for the out-of-phase power associated with inductors and capacitors?

What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor?

What will produce a magnetic field?

When induced currents produce expanding magnetic fields around conductors in a direction that opposes the original magnetic field, this is known as:

The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as:

What is meant by the term “back EMF”?

Permeability is defined as:

What metal is usually employed as a sacrificial anode for corrosion control purposes?

What is the relative dielectric constant for air?

Which metal object may be least affected by galvanic corrosion when submerged in seawater?

Skin effect is the phenomenon where:

Corrosion resulting from electric current flow between dissimilar metals is called:

Which of these will be most useful for insulation at UHF frequencies?

What formula would calculate the total inductance of inductors in series?

Good conductors with minimum resistance have what type of electrons?

Which of the 4 groups of metals listed below are the best low-resistance conductors?

What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor?

How would you calculate the total capacitance of three capacitors in parallel?

How might you reduce the inductance of an antenna coil?

What are the two most commonly-used specifications for a junction diode?

What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?

MOSFETs are manufactured with THIS protective device built into their gate to protect the device from static charges and excessive voltages:

What are the two basic types of junction field-effect transistors?

A common emitter amplifier has:

How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor?

An AC ammeter indicates:

By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the peak voltage value?

What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?

What is the easiest voltage amplitude to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?

By what factor must the voltage measured in an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value?

What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?

What is a sine wave?

How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle?

What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics?

What is the description of a square wave?

What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics?

What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)?

What is the term used to identify an AC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a corresponding value of DC voltage?

What happens to reactive power in a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors?

Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will:

Which of the following groups is correct for listing common materials in order of descending conductivity?

How do you compute true power (power dissipated in the circuit) in a circuit where AC voltage and current are out of phase?

Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal resistance, maximum power will be transferred to the load when:

What value of series resistor would be needed to obtain a full scale deflection on a 50 microamp DC meter with an applied voltage of 200 volts DC?

Which of the following Ohms Law formulas is incorrect?

If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor?

If a 100-ohm resistor is connected across 200 volts, what is the current through the resistor?

If a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts, what is the resistance?

A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 V DC?

What is the peak-to-peak RF voltage on the 50 ohm output of a 100 watt transmitter?

What is the maximum DC or RMS voltage that may be connected across a 20 watt, 2000 ohm resistor?

A 500-ohm, 2-watt resistor and a 1500-ohm, 1-watt resistor are connected in parallel. What is the maximum voltage that can be applied across the parallel circuit without exceeding wattage ratings?

In Figure 3B1, what is the voltage drop across R1?

In Figure 3B2, what is the voltage drop across R1?

What is the maximum rated current-carrying capacity of a resistor marked “2000 ohms, 200 watts”?

What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 0.1 ppm?

The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is:

What is the second harmonic of SSB frequency 4146 kHz?

What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 1.0 ppm?

What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm?

What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 1.0 ppm?

At pi/3 radians, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts?

At 150 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts?

At 240 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts?

What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?

What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?

Determine the phase relationship between the two signals shown in Figure 3B3.

What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result?

746 watts, corresponding to the lifting of 550 pounds at the rate of one-foot-per-second, is the equivalent of how much horsepower?

In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined?

What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage?

What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RC circuit”? The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to:

What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value?

What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RL circuit”? The time required for the:

After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage?

After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage?

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel?

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series?

What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor and a 470-kilohm resistor in series?

What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor and a 1-megohm resistor in parallel?

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel?

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series?

What is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz? Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.

In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz?

In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz?

In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz?

In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.01-microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz?

In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz?

What is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 KHz? Specify your answer in polar coordinates.

In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?

In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

Using the polar coordinate system, what visual representation would you get of a voltage in a sinewave circuit?

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactance of 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance?

A 1-watt, 10-volt Zener diode with the following characteristics: I min. = 5 mA; I max. = 95 mA; and Z = 8 ohms, is to be used as part of a voltage regulator in a 20-V power supply. Approximately what size current- limiting resistor would be used to set its bias to the midpoint of its operating range?

Given a power supply with a no load voltage of 12 volts and a full load voltage of 10 volts, what is the percentage of voltage regulation?

What turns ratio does a transformer need in order to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms?

Given a power supply with a full load voltage of 200 volts and a regulation of 25%, what is the no load voltage?

What is the conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 amperes of current flows when 12 volts DC is applied?

What happens to the conductivity of photoconductive material when light shines on it?

What is the photoconductive effect?

What does the photoconductive effect in crystalline solids produce a noticeable change in?

What is the description of an optoisolator?

What happens to the conductivity of a photosensitive semiconductor junction when it is illuminated?

What is the description of an optocoupler?

What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor?

In Figure 3C4, if a small variable capacitor were installed in place of the dashed line, it would?

In Figure 3C4, which component (labeled 1 through 4) is used to provide a signal ground?

In Figure 3C5, which capacitor (labeled 1 through 4) is being used as a bypass capacitor?

In Figure 3C5, the 1 μF capacitor is connected to a potentiometer that is used to:

What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor?

A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer to:

A transformer used to step up its input voltage must have:

A transformer primary of 2250 turns connected to 120 VAC will develop what voltage across a 500-turn secondary?

What is the ratio of the output frequency to the input frequency of a single-phase full-wave rectifier?

A power transformer has a single primary winding and three secondary windings producing 5.0 volts, 12.6 volts, and 150 volts. Assuming similar wire sizes, which of the three secondary windings will have the highest measured DC resistance?

A power transformer has a primary winding of 200 turns of #24 wire and a secondary winding consisting of 500 turns of the same size wire. When 20 volts are applied to the primary winding, the expected secondary voltage will be:

In a linear electronic voltage regulator:

A switching electronic voltage regulator:

What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

In a regulated power supply, what type of component will most likely be used to establish a reference voltage?

A three-terminal regulator:

What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes?

How might two similar SCRs be connected to safely distribute the power load of a circuit?

What are the three terminals of an SCR?

Which of the following devices acts as two SCRs connected back to back, but facing in opposite directions and sharing a common gate?

What is the transistor called that is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal?

What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?

What circuit might contain a SCR?

What is one common use for PIN diodes?

What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes?

What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies?

What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?

What is the meaning of the term “alpha” with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of:

What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?

What is the meaning of the term “beta” with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of:

What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?

The beta cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor is the frequency at which:

What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated?

A common base amplifier has:

What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off?

An emitter-follower amplifier has:

What conditions exists when a transistor is operating in saturation?

For current to flow in an NPN silicon transistor’s emitter-collector junction, the base must be:

When an NPN transistor is operating as a Class A amplifier, the base-emitter junction:

What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?

What determines the visible color radiated by an LED junction?

What is the approximate operating current of a light-emitting diode?

What would be the maximum current to safely illuminate a LED?

An LED facing a photodiode in a light-tight enclosure is commonly known as a/an:

What circuit component must be connected in series to protect an LED?

What describes a diode junction that is forward biased?

Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices?

What do the initials CMOS stand for?

What is the piezoelectric effect?

An electrical relay is a:

In which oscillator circuit would you find a quartz crystal?

What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?

What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance?

How could voltage be greater across reactances in series than the applied voltage?

What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance?

What is the characteristic of the current flow within the parallel elements in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?

What is the relationship between current through a resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit?

What is the main advantage of using an op-amp audio filter over a passive LC audio filter?

What are the characteristics of an inverting operational amplifier (op-amp) circuit?

Gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit is determined by?

Where is the external feedback network connected to control the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?

Which of the following op-amp circuits is operated open-loop?

In the op-amp oscillator circuit shown in Figure 3D6, what would be the most noticeable effect if the capacitance of C were suddenly doubled?

What frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase comparator, look-up table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass antialias filter?

A circuit that compares the output of a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency standard and produces an error voltage that is then used to adjust the capacitance of a varactor diode used to control frequency in that same VCO is called what?

RF input to a mixer is 200 MHz and the local oscillator frequency is 150 MHz. What output would you expect to see at the IF output prior to any filtering?

What spectral impurity components might be generated by a phase-locked-loop synthesizer?

In a direct digital synthesizer, what are the unwanted components on its output?

What is the definition of a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit?

Given the combined DC input voltages, what would the output voltage be in the circuit shown in Figure 3D7?

Which lamps would be lit in the circuit shown in Figure 3D8?

What will occur if an amplifier input signal coupling capacitor fails open?

In Figure 3D9, determine if there is a problem with this regulated power supply and identify the problem.

In Figure 3D10 with a square wave input what would be the output?

With a pure AC signal input to the circuit shown in Figure 3D11, what output wave form would you expect to see on an oscilloscope display?

What is the voltage range considered to be valid logic low input in a TTL device operating at 5 volts?

What is the voltage range considered to be a valid logic high input in a TTL device operating at 5.0 volts?

What is the common power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

TTL inputs left open develop what logic state?

Which of the following instruments would be best for checking a TTL logic circuit?

What do the initials TTL stand for?

What is a characteristic of an AND gate?

What is a characteristic of a NAND gate?

What is a characteristic of an OR gate?

What is a characteristic of a NOR gate?

What is a characteristic of a NOT gate?

Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out when both inputs are active high?

In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0?

For the logic input levels shown in Figure 3E12, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.)

For the logic input levels given in Figure 3E13, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.)

In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?

Given the input levels shown in Figure 3E14 and assuming positive logic devices, what would the output be?

What is a truth table?

A flip-flop circuit is a binary logic element with how many stable states?

What is a flip-flop circuit? A binary sequential logic element with ___stable states.

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

How many bits of information can be stored in a single flip-flop circuit?

How many R-S flip-flops would be required to construct an 8 bit storage register?

An R-S flip-flop is capable of doing all of the following except:

The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type of digital circuit?

What is an astable multivibrator?

What is a monostable multivibrator?

What is a bistable multivibrator circuit commonly named?

What is a bistable multivibrator circuit?

What wave form would appear on the voltage outputs at the collectors of an astable, multivibrator, common-emitter stage?

What is the name of the semiconductor memory IC whose digital data can be written or read, and whose memory word address can be accessed randomly?

What is the name of the semiconductor IC that has a fixed pattern of digital data stored in its memory matrix?

What does the term “IO” mean within a microprocessor system?

What is the name for a microprocessor’s sequence of commands and instructions?

How many individual memory cells would be contained in a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address pins for connection to the address bus?

What is the name of the random-accessed semiconductor memory IC that must be refreshed periodically to maintain reliable data storage in its memory matrix?

In a microprocessor-controlled two-way radio, a “watchdog” timer:

What does the term “DAC” refer to in a microprocessor circuit?

Which of the following is not part of a MCU processor?

What portion of a microprocessor circuit is the pulse generator?

In a microprocessor, what is the meaning of the term “ALU”?

What circuit interconnects the microprocessor with the memory and input/output system?

What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?

What does the term “BCD” mean?

What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

What integrated circuit device converts an analog signal to a digital signal?

What integrated circuit device converts digital signals to analog signals?

In binary numbers, how would you note the quantity TWO?

What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver?

What is the definition of the term “receiver desensitizing”?

What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals?

What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver?

Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure?

What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible signal?

How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications receiver?

What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?

How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver?

Too much gain in a VHF receiver front end could result in this:

What is the advantage of a GaAsFET preamplifier in a modern VHF radio receiver?

In what stage of a VHF receiver would a low noise amplifier be most advantageous?

Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)?

What is the oscillator stage called in a frequency synthesizer?

What are three major oscillator circuits found in radio equipment?

Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)?

What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? It must:

In Figure 3F15, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) is used to represent a local oscillator?

What is the image frequency if the normal channel is 151.000 MHz, the IF is operating at 11.000 MHz, and the LO is at 140.000 MHz?

What is the mixing process in a radio receiver?

In what radio stage is the image frequency normally rejected?

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

If a receiver mixes a 13.8 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz receive signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

What might occur in a receiver if excessive amounts of signal energy overdrive the mixer circuit?

What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a wideband FM phone receiver?

Which one of these filters can be used in micro-miniature electronic circuits?

A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals?

A receiver selectivity of 10 KHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals?

What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal?

What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier stage in a receiver?

What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency?

What is the primary purpose of the first IF amplifier stage in a receiver?

What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an op-amp?

What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter?

When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k filter?

A good crystal band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone would be?

Which statement is true regarding the filter output characteristics shown in Figure 3F16?

What are the three general groupings of filters?

What is an m-derived filter?

What is an advantage of a constant-k filter?

What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter?

What is a product detector?

Which circuit is used to detect FM-phone signals?

What is the process of detection in a radio diode detector circuit?

What is a frequency discriminator in a radio receiver?

In a CTCSS controlled FM receiver, the CTCSS tone is filtered out after the:

What is the definition of detection in a radio receiver?

What is the digital signal processing term for noise subtraction circuitry?

What is the purpose of de-emphasis in the receiver audio stage?

What makes a Digital Coded Squelch work?

What causes a squelch circuit to function?

What makes a CTCSS squelch work?

What radio circuit samples analog signals, records and processes them as numbers, then converts them back to analog signals?

Where would you normally find a low-pass filter in a radio receiver?

How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise? Install them:

What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received?

What is cross-modulation interference?

In Figure 3F15 at what point in the circuit (labeled 1 through 4) could a DC voltmeter be used to monitor signal strength?

Pulse type interference to automobile radio receivers that appears related to the speed of the engine can often be reduced by:

What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region?

What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier?

Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion?

Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency?

What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff?

Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal?

The class B amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle?

What input-amplitude parameter is most valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

The class C amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle?

What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts?

The class AB amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle?

What class of amplifier is characterized by conduction for 180 degrees of the input wave?

What is the modulation index in an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3,000 Hz on either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1,000 Hz?

What is the modulation index of a FM phone transmitter producing a maximum carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

What is the total bandwidth of a FM phone transmission having a 5 kHz deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency?

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated?

What is a balanced modulator?

What is an L-network?

What is a pi-network?

What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit?

Which three network types are commonly used to match an amplifying device to a transmission line?

What is a pi-L network?

Which network provides the greatest harmonic suppression?

What will occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter?

To produce a single-sideband suppressed carrier transmission it is necessary to ____ the carrier and to ____ the unwanted sideband.

In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio?

What is the approximate ratio of peak envelope power to average power during normal voice modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal?

What is the output peak envelope power from a transmitter as measured on an oscilloscope showing 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load resistor?

What would be the voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1,200 watts?

How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated?

How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated in a power amplifier?

What is the name of the condition that occurs when the signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated?

What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some pre-determined sequence?

How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier design?

What is the modulation type that can be a frequency hopping of one carrier or multiple simultaneous carriers?

The deviation ratio is the:

What is the deviation ratio for an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz?

What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz?

How can an FM-phone signal be produced in a transmitter?

What is meant by the term modulation index?

In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency?

In Figure 3H17, the block labeled 4 would indicate that this schematic is most likely a/an:

In Figure 3H17, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) represents where audio intelligence is inserted?

What kind of input signal could be used to test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope?

What does a two-tone test illustrate on an oscilloscope?

How can a double-sideband phone signal be produced?

What type of signals are used to conduct an SSB two-tone test?

What is an important factor in pulse-code modulation using time-division multiplex?

In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary?

What is the name of the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the duration of the transmitted pulse?

Which of the following best describes a pulse modulation system?

In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary?

What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation system?

When a lead-acid storage battery is being charged, a harmful effect to humans is:

A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 volts is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistance should be connected in series with the battery to charge it from a 110-V DC line?

What capacity in amperes does a storage battery need to be in order to operate a 50 watt transmitter for 6 hours? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A.

What is the total voltage when 12 Nickel-Cadmium batteries are connected in series?

The average fully-charged voltage of a lead-acid storage cell is:

A nickel-cadmium cell has an operating voltage of about:

When an emergency transmitter uses 325 watts and a receiver uses 50 watts, how many hours can a 12.6 volt, 55 ampere-hour battery supply full power to both units?

What current will flow in a 6 volt storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3-watt, 6-volt lamp is connected?

A ship RADAR unit uses 315 watts and a radio uses 50 watts. If the equipment is connected to a 50 ampere-hour battery rated at 12.6 volts, how long will the battery last?

If a marine radiotelephone receiver uses 75 watts of power and a transmitter uses 325 watts, how long can they both operate before discharging a 50 ampere-hour 12 volt battery?

A 6 volt battery with 1.2 ohms internal resistance is connected across two light bulbs in parallel whose resistance is 12 ohms each. What is the current flow?

A 12.6 volt, 8 ampere-hour battery is supplying power to a receiver that uses 50 watts and a RADAR system that uses 300 watts. How long will the battery last?

What occurs if the load is removed from an operating series DC motor?

If a shunt motor running with a load has its shunt field opened, how would this affect the speed of the motor?

The expression “voltage regulation” as it applies to a shunt-wound DC generator operating at a constant frequency refers to:

What is the line current of a 7 horsepower motor operating on 120 volts at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficient?

A 3 horsepower, 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current?

The output of a separately-excited AC generator running at a constant speed can be controlled by:

Which of the following could cause a high standing wave ratio on a transmission line?

Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important?

A radio frequency device that allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with very little loss but absorbs RF power in the opposite direction is a:

What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?

What is meant by the term radiation resistance of an antenna?

What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth?

What is the current flowing through a 52 ohm line with an input of 1,872 watts?

The voltage produced in a receiving antenna is:

Which of the following represents the best standing wave ratio (SWR)?

At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?

An antenna radiates a primary signal of 500 watts output. If there is a 2nd harmonic output of 0.5 watt, what attenuation of the 2nd harmonic has occurred?

There is an improper impedance match between a 30 watt transmitter and the antenna, with 5 watts reflected. How much power is actually radiated?

A vertical 1/4 wave antenna receives signals:

The resonant frequency of a Hertz antenna can be lowered by:

An excited 1/2 wavelength antenna produces:

To increase the resonant frequency of a 1/4 wavelength antenna:

What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a:

What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?

What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line?

Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines to:

A perfect (no loss) coaxial cable has 7 dB of reflected power when the input is 5 watts. What is the output of the transmission line?

Referred to the fundamental frequency, a shorted stub line attached to the transmission line to absorb even harmonics could have a wavelength of:

If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter?

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?

What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?

What is the frequency range of the Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) used to indicate an aircraft’s slant range distance to a selected ground-based navigation station?

The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measures the distance from the aircraft to the DME ground station. This is referred to as:

The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) ground station has a built-in delay between reception of an interrogation and transmission of the reply to allow:

What is the main underlying operating principle of an aircraft’s Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)?

What radio navigation aid determines the distance from an aircraft to a selected VORTAC station by measuring the length of time the radio signal takes to travel to and from the station?

The majority of airborne Distance Measuring Equipment systems automatically tune their transmitter and receiver frequencies to the paired __ / __ channel.

All directions associated with a VOR station are related to:

The rate that the transmitted VOR variable signal rotates is equivalent to how many revolutions per second?

What is the frequency range of the ground-based Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) stations used for aircraft navigation?

Lines drawn from the VOR station in a particular magnetic direction are:

The amplitude modulated variable phase signal and the frequency modulated reference phase signal of a Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station used for aircraft navigation are synchronized so that both signals are in phase with each other at ____________ of the VOR station.

What is the main underlying operating principle of the Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft navigational system?

What is the frequency range of the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport?

What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate an aircraft's position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport's runway?

Which of the following is a required component of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Instrument Landing System (ILS) glideslope installation?

Choose the only correct statement about the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport. The localizer beam system:

On runway approach, an ILS Localizer shows:

What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment?

What is meant by the term “night effect” when using an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? Night effect refers to the fact that:

What are the transmit and receive frequencies of an aircraft’s mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)?

In addition to duplicating the functions of a mode C transponder, an aircraft’s mode S transponder can also provide:

What type of encoding is used in an aircraft’s mode C transponder transmission to a ground station of the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)?

Choose the only correct statement about an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment.

What type of antenna pattern is radiated from a ground station phased-array directional antenna when transmitting the PPM pulses in a Mode S interrogation signal of an aircraft’s Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) installation?

What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Instrument Landing System (ILS) marker beacon installation?

What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Very High Frequency (VHF) communications?

Aircraft Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) operate on what frequencies?

What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s radio altimeter?

What type of antenna is attached to an aircraft’s Mode C transponder installation and used to receive 1030 MHz interrogation signals from the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)?

Some aircraft and avionics equipment operates with a prime power line frequency of 400 Hz. What is the principle advantage of a higher line frequency?

Aviation services use predominantly ____ microphones.

Typical airborne HF transmitters usually provide a nominal RF power output to the antenna of ____ watts, compared with ____ watts RF output from a typical VHF transmitter.

Before ground testing an aircraft RADAR, the operator should:

What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) and Localizer (LOC) installations?

What is the function of a commercial aircraft’s SELCAL installation? SELCAL is a type of aircraft communications __________.

What is a 1/2 digit on a DMM?

A 50 microampere meter movement has an internal resistance of 2,000 ohms. What applied voltage is required to indicate half-scale deflection?

What is the purpose of a series multiplier resistor used with a voltmeter?

What is the purpose of a shunt resistor used with an ammeter?

What instrument is used to indicate high and low digital voltage states?

What instrument may be used to verify proper radio antenna functioning?

How is a frequency counter used?

What is a frequency standard?

What equipment may be useful to track down EMI aboard a ship or aircraft?

On an analog wattmeter, what part of the scale is most accurate and how much does that accuracy extend to the rest of the reading scale?

Which of the following frequency standards is used as a time base standard by field technicians?

Which of the following contains a multirange AF voltmeter calibrated in dB and a sharp, internal 1000 Hz bandstop filter, both used in conjunction with each other to perform quieting tests?

What is used to decrease circuit loading when using an oscilloscope?

How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope?

What stage determines the maximum frequency response of an oscilloscope?

What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an oscilloscope?

An oscilloscope can be used to accomplish all of the following except:

What instrument is used to check the signal quality of a single-sideband radio transmission?

A(n) ____ and ____ can be combined to measure the characteristics of transmission lines. Such an arrangement is known as a time-domain reflectometer (TDR).

What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display?

What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display?

What instrument is most accurate when checking antennas and transmission lines at the operating frequency of the antenna?

What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals in the output of a radio transmitter?

What instrument is commonly used by radio service technicians to monitor frequency, modulation, check receiver sensitivity, distortion, and to generate audio tones?

Can a P25 radio system be monitored with a scanner?

Which of the following answers is true?

What is a common method used to program radios without using a “wired” connection?

What is the common method for determining the exact sensitivity specification of a receiver?

A communications technician would perform a modulation-acceptance bandwidth test in order to:

What is the maximum FM deviation for voice operation of a normal wideband channel on VHF and UHF?

When soldering or working with CMOS electronics products or equipment, a wrist strap:

Which of the following is the preferred method of cleaning solder from plated-through circuit-board holes?

What is the proper way to cut plastic wire ties?

The ideal method of removing insulation from wire is:

A “hot gas bonder” is used:

When repairing circuit board assemblies it is most important to:

What color is the binder for pairs 51-75 in a 100-pair cable?

What is most important when routing cables in a mobile unit?

Why should you not use white or translucent plastic tie wraps on a radio tower?

What is the 6th pair color code in a 25 pair switchboard cable as is found in building telecommunications interconnections?

What tolerance off of plumb should a single base station radio rack be installed?

What type of wire would connect an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay?

On a 150 watt marine SSB HF transceiver, what would be indicated by a steady output of 75 watts when keying the transmitter on?

The tachometer of a building’s elevator circuit experiences interference caused by the radio system nearby. What is a common potential “fix” for the problem?

A common method of programming portable or mobile radios is to use a:

In a software-defined transceiver, what would be the best way for a technician to make a quick overall evaluation of the radio’s operational condition?

How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio?

What steps must be taken to activate the DSC emergency signaling function on a marine VHF?

What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Name two types of spread spectrum systems used in most RF communications applications?

What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where the center frequency of a conventional carrier is altered many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

A TDMA radio uses what to carry the multiple conversations sequentially?

Which of the following statements about SSB voice transmissions is correct?

What are the two most-used PCS (Personal Communications Systems) coding techniques used to separate different calls?

What is a CODEC?

The GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) uses what type of CODEC for digital mobile radio system communications?

Which of the following codes has gained the widest acceptance for exchange of data from one computer to another?

The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. What level is responsible for the actual transmission of data and handshaking signals?

What CODEC is used in Phase 2 P25 radios?

The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. The _______ level arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow.

What is a SDR?

What does the DSP not do in a modern DSP radio?

Which statement best describes the code used for GMDSS-DSC transmissions?

Which is the code used for SITOR-A and -B transmissions?

Which of the following statements is true?

What principle allows multiple conversations to be able to share one radio channel on a GSM channel?

What is the channel spacing used for VHF marine radio?

What VHF channel is assigned for distress and calling?

What VHF Channel is used for Digital Selective Calling and acknowledgement?

Maximum allowable frequency deviation for VHF marine radios is:

What is the reason for the USA-INT control or function?

How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio?

What is a common occurrence when voice-testing an SSB aboard a boat?

What might contribute to apparent low voltage on marine SSB transmitting?

What type of wire connects an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay?

Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true?

The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences?

Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true?

What causes the SART to begin a transmission?

How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display?

In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate?

Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals?

Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true?

What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions?

What is facsimile?

What is the standard scan rate for high-frequency 3 MHz - 23 MHz weather facsimile reception from shore stations?

What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for weather facsimile HF (high frequency) reception?

Which of the following statements about NAVTEX is true?

Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally?

What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver does not print a particular type of message content?

What data language is bi-directional, multi-transmitter, multi-receiver network?

How should shielding be grounded on an NMEA 0183 data line?

What might occur in NMEA 2000 network topology if one device in line should fail?

In an NMEA 2000 device, a load equivalence number (LEN) of 1 is equivalent to how much current consumption?

An NMEA 2000 system with devices in a single location may be powered using this method:

What voltage drop at the end of the last segment will satisfy NMEA 2000 network cabling plans?

What is the normal range of pulse repetition rates?

The RADAR range in nautical miles to an object can be found by measuring the elapsed time during a RADAR pulse and dividing this quantity by:

What is the normal range of pulse widths?

Shipboard RADAR is most commonly operated in what band?

The pulse repetition rate (prr) of a RADAR refers to the:

If the elapsed time for a RADAR echo is 62 microseconds, what is the distance in nautical miles to the object?

The ATR box:

What is the purpose or function of the RADAR duplexer/circulator? It is a/an:

What device can be used to determine the performance of a RADAR system at sea?

What is the purpose of a synchro transmitter and receiver?

Digital signal processing (DSP) of RADAR signals (compared with analog) causes:

The component or circuit providing the transmitter output power for a RADAR system is the:

When a RADAR is being operated on the 48 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width (PW) and pulse repetition rate (pps)?

When a RADAR is being operated on the 6 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate?

We are looking at a target 25 miles away. When a RADAR is being operated on the 25 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate?

What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at long ranges?

What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at short ranges?

When a RADAR is being operated on the 1.5 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate?

How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

What type of antenna or pickup device is used to extract the RADAR signal from the wave guide?

What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased? The beamwidth:

A common shipboard RADAR antenna is the:

Conductance takes place in a waveguide:

To couple energy into and out of a waveguide use:

The permanent magnetic field that surrounds a traveling-wave tube (TWT) is intended to:

Prior to testing any RADAR system, the operator should first:

In the term “ARPA RADAR,” ARPA is the acronym for which of the following?

Which of the following is NOT a precaution that should be taken to ensure the magnetron is not weakened:

Exposure to microwave energy from RADAR or other electronics devices is limited by U.S. Health Department regulations to _______ mW/centimeter.

RADAR collision avoidance systems utilize inputs from each of the following except your ship’s:

What is the orbiting altitude of the Iridium satellite communications system?

What frequency band is used by the Iridium system for telephone and messaging?

What services are provided by the Iridium system?

Which of the following statements about the Iridium system is true?

What is the main function of the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system?

How does the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system determine the position of a ship in distress?

What is the orbital altitude of INMARSAT Satellites?

Which of the following describes the INMARSAT Satellite system?

What are the directional characteristics of the INMARSAT-C SES antenna?

When engaging in voice communications via an INMARSAT-B terminal, what techniques are used?

Which of the following statements concerning INMARSAT geostationary satellites is true?

Which of the following conditions can render INMARSAT -B communications impossible?

What is the best description for the INMARSAT-C system?

The INMARSAT mini-M system is a:

What statement best describes the INMARSAT-B services?

Which INMARSAT systems offer High Speed Data at 64/54 kbps?

When INMARSAT-B and INMARSAT-C terminals are compared:

What services are provided by the INMARSAT-M service?

Global Positioning Service (GPS) satellite orbiting altitude is:

The GPS transmitted frequencies are:

How many GPS satellites are normally in operation?

What best describes the GPS Satellites orbits?

How many satellites must be received to provide complete position and time?

What is DGPS?

Compliance with MPE, or Maximum Permissible Exposure to RF levels (as defined in FCC Part 1, OET Bulletin 65) for “controlled” environments, are averaged over _______ minutes, while “uncontrolled” RF environments are averaged over ______ minutes.

Sites having multiple transmitting antennas must include antennas with more than _______% of the maximum permissible power density exposure limit when evaluating RF site exposure.

RF exposure from portable radio transceivers may be harmful to the eyes because:

At what aggregate power level is an MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) study required?

Why must you never look directly into a fiber optic cable?

If the MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) power is present, how often must the personnel accessing the affected area be trained and certified?

What device can protect a transmitting station from a direct lightning hit?

What is the purpose of not putting sharp corners on the ground leads within a building?

Should you use a power drill without eye protection?

What class of fire is one that is caused by an electrical short circuit and what is the preferred substance used to extinguish that type of fire?

Do shorted-stub lightning protectors work at all frequencies?

What is a GFI electrical socket used for?