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Advanced Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate

Element 6 (Radiotelegraph)615 questions

Radiotelegraph operating procedures, international regulations, and advanced technical knowledge for maritime and fixed-station telegraph operations.

Subelement A:

Topic :

6A1

SITOR-ARQ is a common mode of data communications in the maritime service. It is a system based ontransmission bursts and acknowledgements. What is the baud, and interval between the bursttransmissions:

6A10

Factors which determine the amplitude of the voltage induced in a conductor which is cutting magneticlines of force:

6A100

To double the resonant frequency of a resonant circuit:

6A101

How may the Q of a parallel resonant circuit be increased?

6A102

If L and C in a parallel resonant circuit resonants at 1000 kHz are so varied that their product remainsconstant, what will be the resulting resonant frequency?

6A103

What is the resonant frequency of a tuned circuit consisting of a 500 picofarad capacitor, a 150microfarad tuning coil, and 10 ohms resistance?

6A104

What is voltage regulation as applied to power supplies?

6A105

An EMF may be generated by sound waves by what principle?

6A106

How can you correct power factor in an electrical circuit?

6A107

Permeability is:

6A108

The time in seconds for a capacitor to attain 63.2 % of the applied voltage across its terminals is:

6A109

What is the reactance of a 2-henry choke at 3000 Hz?

6A11

An electrical potential may be generated by:

6A110

If there is no resistance in either leg of a circuit with an inductance of 5 henrys in parallel with acapacitance of 1 microfarad, what is the equivalent impedance of the parallel network circuit?

6A111

What is the total impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactanceof 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance?

6A112

The total impedance of a series AC circuit with an inductive reactance of 24 ohms, a resistance of 16ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 16 ohms is:

6A113

Essentials for making a good solder connection are:

6A114

For protection of personnel handling a transmitter:

6A115

The ratio of peak-to-effective voltage values of a sign wave are:

6A116

The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as:

6A117

The ratio of magnetic flux density to the field strength is known as:

6A118

The magnetic force which remains in a substance after the original magnetizing force has been removedis known as:

6A119

The direction of electron flow through a coil and the manner of winding the turns:

6A12

Ohm's law is stated as:

6A120

Adding an iron core to an air-core inductance:

6A121

Electromagnets are used in:

6A122

What will be the effect of a small increase in the number of turns upon the field strength of a single layersolenoid?

6A123

Can a transformer be used with direct current?

6A124

A tube containing either a filament or cathode structure, grid, and a plate is a:

6A125

A tube similar to a triode with the addition of a spirally wound screen grid between the plate and controlgrid is a:

6A126

Theoretical gain of a tube. The ratio of a small change in plate voltage to give a certain small change inplate current to a change in grid which would cause the same current:

6A127

Effectiveness of the grid in causing changes of plate current:

6A128

The maximum negative anode voltage with respect to the cathode. It equals the DC voltage at the inputto the plus the peak AC voltage applied during the nonconducting portion of the cycle of operation of thetube:

6A129

What is the primary purpose of the control grid of the triode?

6A13

The unit of electrical power is:

6A130

What is the primary purpose of the screen grid of the tetrode?

6A131

What is the primary purpose of the suppressor grid of a pentode?

6A132

Thoriated tungsten is usually used to make:

6A133

In what types of circuits do beam power vacuum tubes find application?

6A134

When free electrons in a conductor acquire sufficient energy to leave the conductor and pass into thesurrounding space, it is expressed as:

6A135

The emission of electrons from a material due to the impact of high-velocity electrons on its surface is:

6A136

Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a class A amplifier:

6A137

Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a class B amplifier:

6A138

Factors which determine bios voltage of a vacuum tube:

6A139

In the usual Class A amplifier:

6A14

The unit of conductance is:

6A140

The DC bias in a Class A amplifier:

6A141

What is the effect of incorrect grid bias in a Class A amplifier?

6A142

The approximate efficiency of a Class A vacuum tube amplifier:

6A143

The approximate efficiency of a Class B vacuum tube amplifier:

6A144

The approximate efficiency of a Class C vacuum tube amplifier:

6A145

A charge due to the accumulation of negative electrons because the plate potential cannot attract all ofthe electrons leaving the emitter:

6A146

A material flashed by the application of heat after the tube is evacuated that absorbs any gases remaininginside the tube:

6A147

What types of vacuum tube filaments are reactivated:

6A148

A tungsten filament is operated at ____ temperature than a thoriated tungsten filament:

6A149

The presence of gas within a tube is indicated:

6A15

The unit of inductance is:

6A150

The cathode of an indirectly heated type of vacuum tube should be maintained at nearly the samepotential as the heater circuit:

6A151

Transmitting tube filaments should be maintained at recommended voltages:

6A152

Use of an AC filament supply is desirable:

6A153

If a DC filament supply is used, it is advisable to periodically reverse the polarity of the filamentpotential:

6A154

Bias voltage on the grid of an AF amplifier tube:

6A155

The screen grid in a vacuum tube:

6A156

The suppressor grid in a multielement vacuum tube:

6A157

The gain of a triode audio amplifier is a function of:

6A158

"Load" on a vacuum tube commonly refers to:

6A159

A case in which the grid is held at an excessively negative value for a period of time thereby cutting offplate current:

6A16

The ratio of current through a conductor to the voltage which produces it is:

6A160

The maximum power that can be safely and continuously dissipated in heat on the plate:

6A161

Occurs when plate current equals electron emission for any given filament or cathode temperature:

6A162

The most desirable factor in the choice of a vacuum tube for a voltage amplifier:

6A163

Lack of requirement for neutralizing, except at ultra high frequencies, is an advantage of a tetrode over____:

6A164

Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a Class C amplifier:

6A165

Plate current flows for less than 180 degrees (about 120 degrees when the grid bias is about twice cutoffvalue) in what class amplifier?

6A166

Tubes operated as Class C amplifiers are not suited for audio-frequency amplifiers:

6A167

Low plate current may be caused by:

6A168

A tuned circuit made up of inductance and capacitance is:

6A169

Some radio-frequency amplifiers must be neutralized:

6A17

The product of the number of turns and the current in amperes used to describe relative magnitude is:

6A170

Cavity resonators are:

6A171

The diode detector:

6A172

The functioning of a grid-leak detector:

6A173

Characteristic of a square law type of vacuum tube detector:

6A174

A diode detector ordinarily produces ____ overall distortion of the audio output wave than does a triodedetector:

6A175

Operating conditions for determining that a tube is being used as a power detector:

6A176

Why is a center top usually provided for vacuum tube plate and grid return circuits when and ACfilament supply is used?

6A177

How would you determine the cathode-bias resistance necessary to provide correct grid bias for anamplifier?

6A178

Given the following vacuum tube constants: Gp = 1000 V, Ip = 150 mA, Ig = 10 mA, Grid leaks = 5000ohms. What would be the grid bias voltage?

6A179

What currents will be indicated by a milliammeter connected between the center top of the filamenttransformer of a tetrode and negative high voltage?

6A18

The property of a conductor or coil which causes a voltage to be developed across its terminals when thenumber of magnetic lines of force in the circuit or coil is changed is:

6A180

A dynatron oscillator is a ____ which depends upon the negative resistance characteristic of a tetrodetube for its operation:

6A181

Materials which can be used as crystal detectors:

6A182

A power detector may be operated:

6A183

Used to multiply the fundamental frequency by two:

6A184

When used as an RF amplifier, a pentode vacuum tube:

6A185

A quartz crystal in a radio transmitter:

6A186

Advantage of crystal control over tuned circuit oscillators:

6A187

If the crystal will undergo very small changes in its operating frequency with relatively large temperaturevariations:

6A188

A separate source of power is sometimes desirable for crystal-oscillator units in a transmitter:

6A189

"The temperature coefficient of an x-cut crystal is negative":

6A19

The charge of electricity which passes a given point in one second when a current of one ampere isflowing is:

6A190

If you apply DC voltage to the opposite plane surfaces of a quartz crystal:

6A191

"The temperature coefficient of a y-cut crystal is positive" means:

6A192

Two dissimilar metals joined together and producing a current between them when the junction is heatedis:

6A193

Waveguides:

6A194

Transistors may be compared to a conventional triode vacuum tube functionally:

6A195

Types of transistors:

6A196

When using and storing crystal microphones:

6A197

What effect does a change in the dielectric constant of a capacitor dielectric material have upon thecapacitance of a capacitor:

6A198

Increasing the number of plates of a capacitor:

6A199

If the dielectric constants of a capacitor dielectric material between the capacitor plates were changedfrom 1 to 1:

6A2

Weather information is commonly sent by radio in map form by one-way facsimile transmission. Twocommon parameters which must be set by the receiving station are:

6A20

C = capacity in farads. Q = the measure of the quantity of charge of electricity in Coulombs. E = theapplied voltage. So Q = CE:

6A200

Contacts which slide together on opening and closing:

6A201

Permanent magnets used in head telephones:

6A202

Emergency repairs to an inductance coil having burned or charred insulation:

6A203

Indications of a defective vacuum tube in a transmitter:

6A204

The breakdown voltage rating of a capacitor are determined by:

6A205

Crystal surfaces should be free of dirt of grease to operate properly:

6A206

A purplish glow from within a tube indicates:

6A207

Given a solenoid with a resistance of 5 ohms and 0.34 through the winding when 1108 at 60 Hz isapplied. What is the impedance?

6A208

Use of a low pass filter network:

6A209

A special type of power supply filter choke whose inductance is inversely proportioned to values of DCwithin specified limits is:

6A21

Resistance is:

6A210

The best suited material for use as an antenna strain insulator exposed to the elements:

6A211

Materials frequently used for relay contacts:

6A212

Why is rosin used as a soldering flux?

6A213

What substance is the most widely used in crystal oscillators?

6A214

Why is an oscillator crystal operated at a constant temperature?

6A215

The advantage of a single-button carbon microphone:

6A216

A carbon microphone should not be:

6A217

In connecting head telephones directly in the plate circuit of a vacuum tube one should observe theproper polarity:

6A218

What should the plate current do in the operation of a Class B audio amplifier?

6A219

What turns ratio does a transformer need to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms?

6A22

The unit of AC impedance in a circuit is:

6A220

What microphones have a high impedance output?

6A221

How may low impedance (75 ohm) head telephones be connected to the output of a vacuum tube?

6A222

Why do headphones usually have high-impedance windings?

6A223

A "choke" coil:

6A224

Why is correct grid bias necessary for audio frequency amplifier?

6A225

When a tube is used as a Class B amplifier what portion of the excitation voltage cycle does plate currentflow?

6A226

A properly operated Class A audio amplifier:

6A227

What is the main advantage obtained by using two triodes in push-pull in a Class a audio frequencyamplifier?

6A228

What is the maximum permissible RMS value of audio voltage which can be applied to the grid of aClass A audio amplifier which has a grid bias of 10 V?

6A229

Distortion in a Class A amplifier can be caused by:

6A23

The unit of capacitance is:

6A230

Vacuum tubes operating as Class A amplifiers may be used as:

6A232

What is the DC plate voltage of a resistance-coupled amplifier state with a plate-supply voltage of 260 V,a plate current of 1 mA, and a plate load resistance of 100,000 ohms?

6A233

Why is it necessary to use two tubes in a Class B audio amplifier?

6A234

If the coupling capacitor leaked in a resistance-coupled audio frequency amplifier:

6A235

A vacuum tube operated Class C audio amplifier is not feasible, either in single or push-pull:

6A236

Even harmonics may be reduced in the output of an audio frequency amplifier:

6A237

The main advantage of a tuned audio frequency amplifier in a receiver used for the reception of CW:

6A238

Decoupling networks in the plate circuit of a multistage audio amplifier:

6A239

An audio-transformer is seldom used as the output device in the plate circuit of a tetrode audio-amplifierstage:

6A24

Decibel is:

6A240

The chief advantage of Class A audio operation is compared to the other classes of audio-frequencyamplifiers:

6A241

Which is not the principle advantage of transformer coupling compared to resistance coupling in audio-frequency amplifiers?

6A242

Efficiency of a power transformer is determined by:

6A243

The ratios of primary and secondary currents in a power transformer:

6A244

A transformer has a primary voltage of 100, primary turns = 200, and secondary turns = 40. What is thesecondary voltage?

6A245

What factors determine the no-load voltage ratio of a power transformer?

6A246

The turns ratio of a transformer varies:

6A247

Primary cells:

6A248

Secondary cells:

6A249

The formation of hydrogen gas around the positive electrode of a primary cell is:

6A25

What factors determine the charge stored in a capacitor?

6A250

A dry cell may be tested:

6A251

In the usual type dry cell:

6A252

"A", "B", and "C" batteries are alike, but specifically constructed for a particular function. Explain:

6A253

The condition of a dry "B" battery may be determined:

6A254

Spare "B" batteries should be stored:

6A255

A means of comparing the weight of a volume of liquid with the same volume of distilled water:

6A256

Edison type batteries:

6A257

The electrolyte of a lead-acid storage cell:

6A258

The negative plate of a lead-acid storage cell:

6A259

The positive plate of a lead-acid storage cell:

6A26

Ohm's law for AC circuits when I = amperes, E = volts, Z = impedance in volts is:

6A260

The chemical composition of the electrolyte in an Edison-type storage cell:

6A261

The negative plate of an Edison-type storage cell is:

6A262

The positive plate of an Edison-type storage cell is:

6A263

The average fully-charged voltage of an Edison storage cell is:

6A264

Decrease in capacity of an Edison-type storage cell can be caused by:

6A265

The average fully charged voltage of a lead-acid cell is:

6A266

To increase the power output of a storage cell:

6A267

The condition of charge of an Edison cell can be determined:

6A268

The charge of a lead-acid storage cell:

6A269

Sulfation:

6A27

The formula for determining the power in a DC circuit when the voltage and resistance are known is:

6A270

If the polarity is reversed when charging a storage cell:

6A271

You may measure the voltage of a battery under heavy load:

6A272

If the voltage of some cells in a battery are found to be reversed, what is indicated?

6A273

Distilled water should be added to a lead-acid storage cell:

6A274

Local action in a lead-acid storage cell:

6A275

To maintain a group of storage cells in good operating condition:

6A276

What may cause the plates of a lead-acid call to buckle?

6A277

What may cause sulfation of a lead-acid cell?

6A278

What may be used to neutralize an acid electrolyte?

6A279

To prevent corrosion of battery terminals:

6A28

The formula for finding power in a DC circuit when current and resistance are known:

6A280

Why should there be ventilation to the room housing a large group of storage cells?

6A281

Radio equipment on which electrolyte may be used:

6A282

What is the effect of low temperature on the operation of a lead-acid storage battery?

6A283

What form of energy is stored in a lead-acid storage battery?

6A284

How may polarity of a storage battery be determined?

6A285

A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 V is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistanceshould be connected in series with the battery to charge from a 110 V line?

6A286

A discharged storage battery of 3 cells has an open circuit voltage of 1.8 V per cell and an internalresistance of 0.1 ohm per cell. What voltage is needed to give an initial charging rate of 10 A?

6A287

What capacity in amperes of storage battery is required to operate a 50 W emergency transmitter for 6hr.? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergencylight load of 1.5

6A288

If a receiver storage A battery could not be kept charged, and maintain the required watch period, whatshould you do?

6A289

Abnormally low input power terminal voltage of a lifeboat radiotelegraph transmitter while in operationcould be caused by:

6A29

The formula for finding power in a DC circuit when current and voltage are known:

6A290

If a battery has 12.4 V on open circuit and 12.2 V when its charging circuit is closed:

6A291

The tops of lead-acid batteries should be kept dry:

6A292

When lead-acid cells are subject to low temperatures they should:

6A293

If an electrolyte in a lead-acid storage cell becomes low due to evaporation:

6A294

An Edison storage battery should not be charged at less than the manufacturer's specified rate:

6A295

Your emergency battery has a specific gravity reading of 1.120. What should be done?

6A296

What care should be taken with selecting water to add to a storage cell?

6A297

If the circuit breakers refuse to stay closed when you place the emergency batteries on charge, what is thetrouble?

6A298

Heat developed within a storage cell under charge or discharge conditions is caused by:

6A299

How would you connect a group of similar cells in a storage battery to obtain the maximum zeroresistance current?

6A3

2182 kHz is the international radiotelephone distress frequency. It is also used for a calling channel. Theauthorized mode of emission is H3E (single-sideband full carrier). A3E (double-sideband full carrier) isonly authorized for equipment:

6A30

The prefix " kilo " means:

6A300

How would you connect a group of similar cells in a storage battery to obtain the maximum no-bondoutput voltage?

6A301

What current will flow in a 6 V storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3 W, 6 Vlamp is connected?

6A302

The charging rate of a storage cell charged from a fixed voltage source decreases as the chargingprogresses opposition to the charging voltage?

6A303

The principal function of the filter in a power supply:

6A304

Advantages of capacitor input and choke-input filters when used with rectifiers:

6A305

A high-resistance fixed resistor is shunted across each unit of a high voltage series capacitor bank in thepower-supply filter circuit to:

6A306

Part of the secondary winding of a transmitters power transformer is accidentally shorted. What shouldbe the immediate effect?

6A307

Bleeder resistors are used in power supplies:

6A308

The ratio of the frequencies of the output and input circuits of a single-phase full-wave rectifier:

6A309

A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer:

6A31

The prefix " micro " means:

6A310

What is the maximum allowable secondary voltage of a transformer used as a center-tapped full-waverectifier with tubes having a peak inverse voltage rating of 10,000 V?

6A311

If a 60 Hz transformer is connected to a 120 Hz source of the same voltage:

6A312

If a 500 Hz transformer is connected to a 60 Hz source of the same voltage:

6A313

A 500 Hz AC plate supply, rectified by a full-wave, unfiltered rectifier circuit. What would the emissionbe?

6A314

The purpose of an air gap in a filter choke coil core. Which is the incorrect answer?

6A315

Loose laminations in a filter choke:

6A316

Poor regulation in a power supply may be caused by:

6A317

Why should the case of a high-voltage transformer be grounded?

6A318

When connecting electrolytic capacitors in series:

6A319

Full wave rectification has ____ than half-wave:

6A32

The factor by which the product of volts and amperes must be multiplied to obtain true power is:

6A320

Voltage regulation is ____ with a high resistance choke:

6A321

Electrolyte capacitors are desirable over other types because:

6A322

The most common values of chokes range from:

6A323

The power transformer and rectifier of a radio receiver are designed to supply a plate voltage of 250 Vwhen operating from a 110 V 60 Hz supply, if the transformer is connected to 110 VDC what willhappen?

6A324

A shunt-wound DC motor:

6A325

A series DC motor has:

6A326

This partially counteracts the line voltage and so limits the armature current in a DC motor:

6A327

A compound-wound DC motor:

6A328

Laminated iron is used in armature and field construction to:

6A329

The ____ of a DC motor periodically change the armature coils to maintain one direction of rotation:

6A33

The prefix " meg " means:

6A330

The speed of a series DC motor may increase and destroy the motor by centrifugal action:

6A331

When the field of a shunt-wound DC motor opens while the machine is operating under no load:

6A332

____ are used in a DC motor to reduce brush sparking without moving the brushes:

6A333

A short in the armature coils of a DC motor causes:

6A334

The motor-field rheostat should be ____ when starting a DC motor generator set:

6A335

If a motor generator fails to start when the start button is depressed, the trouble may be:

6A336

When increased output is desired from a motor-generator, what is the usual procedure?

6A337

A dynamotor is:

6A338

Output voltage of a dynamotor may be regulated:

6A339

What disadvantage is there to a dynamotor?

6A34

Factors which influence the resistance of a conductor:

6A340

Causes of excessive sparking at the brushes of a DC motor or generator include:

6A341

By-pass capacitors are often connected across the brushes of a high-voltage DC generator:

6A342

Causes of motor-generator bearing overheating include:

6A343

RF interference may be minimized:

6A344

Emery cloth should never be used to clean the commutator of a motor or generator:

6A345

A 3 HP 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current?

6A346

The speed of a synchronous motor is determined:

6A347

The speed of an induction motor is determined:

6A348

The speed of a DC series motor is determined:

6A349

What is the line current of a 7 HP motor operating on 120 V at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95%efficiency?

6A35

Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will:

6A350

Alternators are usually rated in:

6A351

What conditions must be met before two AC generators can be operated in parallel?

6A352

The voltage of an alternator will:

6A353

What effect will high coupling between the plate and grid circuits of a quartz-crystal oscillator have?

6A354

The operation of a dynatron oscillator depends on what?

6A355

To provide additional feedback voltage in a crystal oscillator what is sometimes needed?

6A356

What is the primary reason for the use of a crystal controlled oscillator for use as a transmitter?

6A357

What is are the advantages of self excited oscillator and master-oscillator power-amplifier transmitters?

6A358

The primary function of the power-amplifier stage of a marine radiotelegraph transmitter is:

6A359

The buffer amplifier stage of a transmitter:

6A36

Name four conducting materials in order of their conductivity.

6A360

Which class of amplifier is used in the final amplifier stage for maximum plate efficiency?

6A361

What class of amplifier is used as linear in order not to distort the modulation components?

6A362

If a class B linear final R-F amplifier were in saturation and no modulation what would happen whenmodulated?

6A363

A class C amplifier:

6A364

What effect would insufficient radio-frequency excitation have on Class C modulated amplifier output?

6A365

The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is:

6A366

Two effects of over-excitation of a Class B amplifier grid circuit are:

6A367

Three main factors to consider about grid-leak in a vacuum tube transmitter:

6A368

How can an R-F amplifier stage be neutralized?

6A369

What is the purpose of a speech amplifier in connection with the modulator of a transmitter?

6A37

Good insulators at radio frequencies are:

6A370

When the first speech-amplifier of a transmitter were overexcited, but the modulation capabilities werenot exceeded what would be the effect on the output?

6A371

The bias of a grid-modulated R-F stage is adjusted:

6A372

Given the following: (1) audio power for 100% modulation equals 50% of DC input power to RFmodulated amplifier, (2) load presented to the modulated tube consists of the DC plate impedance of themodulated amplifier, (3) constant grid excitation voltage, very lot distortion, what type of modulation?

6A373

Modulation occurring in an RF stage other than the final power amplifier:

6A374

The efficiency of a grid-bias modulated stage should be:

6A375

Does grid current flow in a grid-bias modulated stage under modulated conditions?

6A376

What might be the cause of a positive shift in carrier amplitude during modulation?

6A377

For 100% modulation, DC power input to the modulated RF amplifier should:

6A378

When a radiotelephone transmitter is 100% modulated by sinusoidal waveform , how much antennacurrent will be observed?

6A379

What can be done in a Heising modulation system to obtain 100% modulation?

6A38

A resistance across which a constant voltage is applied is doubled. What power dissipation will result?

6A380

A plate choke in a Heising modulator:

6A381

What value of sinusoidal audio power is required to insure 100% modulation when the DC plate input toa modulated Class C amplifier has an efficiency of 60 % , and is 200 W?

6A382

What would be the antenna current when a transmitter has an antenna current of 8 amp, under A -1, evenif it is 100% modulated by sinusoidal modulation?

6A383

If a transmitter is adjusted for maximum power for telegraph, what must be done to be amplitudemodulated?

6A384

A series-fed plate circuit of a vacuum tube amplifier has a short circuit of the plate bypass capacitor.What happened?

6A385

A shunt-fed plate circuit of a vacuum tube amplifier has a short circuit of the plate RF choke. Whathappens?

6A386

The total bandwidth of a transmitter using A-2 emission with a modulating frequency of 800 Hz and acarrier frequency of 500 kHz is:

6A387

Given a vacuum tube of the following characteristics: plate voltage 1000 V, plate current 127 ma,filament current 5.4 amp, mutual conductance 8000 microvolts, and amplification factor of 25. What isthe correct volume of negative grid bias for Class B amplifier?

6A388

When the relative amplitudes of the positive and negative modulation peaks are unsymmetrical:

6A389

What may be used as indicating devices in neutralizing an RF amplifier stage?

6A39

The needle of a magnetic compass when placed within a coil carrying an electric current:

6A390

Important factors in the operation of the vacuum tube as a frequency doubler are:

6A391

If a 1500 kHz radio wave is modulated by a 2000 Hz sine wave tone, what frequencies does themodulated wave contain?

6A392

To avoid damage to components what precautions should be observed in tuning a transmitter?

6A393

A transmitter has a master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, and final amplifier. In what order shouldthe circuit be adjusted in putting the transmitter in operation?

6A394

Excessive plate current of an RF amplifier may be caused by:

6A395

The disadvantage of using a self-excited oscillator type of transmitter for shipboard service:

6A396

The degree of coupling is varied in a pi-network used to transfer energy from a vacuum tube plate circuitto an antenna:

6A397

In order of selectivity, the best receivers are:

6A398

An RF filter in the plate circuit of a tube detector is sometimes necessary to:

6A399

In an RF amplifier with fixed bias, as the plate circuit is varied from below resonance to aboveresonance, what will the grid current do?

6A4

Ship's power is generated as 3-phase and is ungrounded. On a delta-wound transformer with 120 VACline-to-line secondary, what is the voltmeter reading from line to ground:

6A40

Electrical resistance is measured with:

6A400

In a self-biased RF amplifier stage: plate voltage is 1250 V, plate current 150 ma, grid current 15 ma,grid-leak resistance of 4000 ohms, what is the operating grid bias?

6A401

How would you determine the cathode bias resistance necessary to provide correct grid bias for anamplifier?

6A402

What is a method of link coupling between two R-F amplifier stages?

6A403

Which type of amplifier circuit is used in a link coupling R-F?

6A404

An advantage of link coupling between RF amplifier stages is:

6A405

What effect does excessive coupling between the output circuit of an oscillator and an antenna have?

6A406

How is power output of a transmitter adjusted?

6A407

When is a transmitter tuned to reduced power?

6A408

What is meant by split tuning?

6A409

What is a self rectified circuit?

6A41

The sum of all voltage drops around a simple DC circuit, including the source, is:

6A410

What would be the dB change in field intensity at a given distance if the power is doubled?

6A411

Keying can be accomplished at various points in a radiotelegraph transmitter. Some are:

6A412

What is the term used when the receiving operator may interrupt the transmitting operator at any pointduring transmission?

6A413

Which of the following best explains frequency-shift keying?

6A414

What is one of the advantages frequency-shift keying has over "on-off" keying?

6A415

Code speed or number of words per minute transmitted have what effect if any on the bandwidth ofemission of a radiotelegraph transmitter?

6A416

Keying a simple-oscillator type of emergency transmitter may be accomplished by:

6A417

The plate current of the final RF amplifier in a transmitter increases and radiation decreases, if theantenna circuit is in good order, what could be the cause?

6A418

When hoisting a shipboard antenna, to avoid damage to the wire and insulators:

6A419

If a field strength is 100 microvolts per meter at 100 miles, what is the field strength at 200 miles?

6A42

If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result?

6A420

Field intensity is:

6A421

What point on a shipboard antenna system displays the maximum potential?

6A422

A defective vacuum tube in a transmitter may be indicated by:

6A423

A master-oscillator power-amplifier transmitter has been operating normally. The antenna ammetersuddenly reads zero. All filaments are burning and plate and grid meters read normal currents andvoltages. What happened?

6A424

Effects of dirty or salt-encrusted insulation are:

6A425

To reduce the sparking at the contacts of a key used in a radiotelegraph transmitter:

6A426

In a self excited oscillator, a swinging antenna:

6A427

What may be observed as the antenna circuit is brought into resonance about the plate current of the finalamplifier?

6A428

Instruments used to indicate various DC currents and voltages in a transmitter may be protected againstdamage to stray RF by:

6A429

In a radiotelegraph transmitter with a DC generator plate voltage source, an AC generator filamentsupply, and grid-bias keying, what could be wrong when the emission continues with the key contactsopen?

6A43

The diameter of a conductor six inches long is doubled, what will be the effect on the resistance?

6A430

A station has an assigned frequency of 8000 kHz and a frequency tolerance of plus or minus 0.04%. Theoscillator operates at 1/8th of the input. What is the maximum permitted deviation of the oscillationfrequency in Hz, which will not exceed the tolerance?

6A431

A transmitter operating on 5000 kHz uses a 1000 kHz crystal with a tempered coefficient of - 4Hz/MHz/0 degrees centigrade. What is the change in the output frequency of the transmitter if thetemperature increases 6 degrees centigrade?

6A432

The correct formula for determining the surge impedance of a quarter wavelength matching line is:

6A433

What are the three factors to consider when figuring the surge impedance of a non-resonant transmissionline?

6A434

If the output frequency after passing through three doubler stages is 16,800 kHz, give the crystalfrequency of a transmitter:

6A435

Adding an inductor in series with an antenna will have what effect on the resonant frequency?

6A436

Adding a capacitor in series with an antenna will have what effect on resonant frequency?

6A437

The radiated wavelength of a Hertzian antenna is:

6A438

To operate on a lower resonant frequency on an available Marconi antenna which would be the correctprocedure?

6A439

By reducing the physical length of a Hertzian antenna what are the results?

6A44

A minute subdivision of matter having the smallest known unit of negative electrical charge is:

6A440

Which antenna system has the ability to discriminate between various directions of receiving ortransmitting?

6A441

Given the current and resistance of the base of a Marconi antenna, what would be the formula fordetermining the power?

6A442

A vertical loop antenna has a:

6A443

What modulation is contained in static and lightning radio waves?

6A444

The difference between a Hertz and Marconi antenna is:

6A445

What is meant by the term polarization of a radio wave?

6A446

What are the lowest frequencies used in radio communication today?

6A447

Radio frequencies that are useful for long distance communications requiring continuous operation:

6A448

Communication at frequencies in the order of 15 kHz are usually accomplished by ground waves, andrequire generation of ____ power outputs for reliable and continuous operation:

6A449

Frequencies with substantially line propagations:

6A45

Conductors differ from nonconductors, i.e.:

6A450

On an average yearly basis the received Trans-Atlantic signals increased in strength in proportion to thedegree of ____. Made on the basis of the 11 year cycle:

6A451

Harmonic radiation is:

6A452

Harmonic radiation from a transmitter may cause interference:

6A453

Why suppress RF harmonics in the output of a transmitter?

6A454

A wavetrap in a receiver:

6A455

The follow devices that could be used to indicate oscillation in a crystal oscillator are:

6A456

An artificial antenna sometimes used in testing a transmitter:

6A457

The system producing A-2 emission by a "chopper" may be thought of:

6A458

Advantages of high-frequency radio communication:

6A459

Transmitters that employ variometers rather than variable capacitors as tuning elements do so because of:

6A46

Direction of flow of DC electricity in a conductor can be determined by:

6A460

The relationship between the antenna current and radiated power of an antenna:

6A461

Iron compound cylinders found in inductances:

6A462

Modulation of an RF carrier produces in the plate circuit of the last radio stage of the system:

6A463

Basically, am FM receiver is a conventional superheterodyne but differs in:

6A464

A form of regenerative receiver in which the detector breaks into and out of oscillation at a rate aboveaudibility:

6A465

A tuned RF amplifier stage ahead of the mixer stage in a superheterodyne receiver:

6A466

What is the "mixer" tube in the superheterodyne receiver?

6A467

An incoming signal causing image interference is ____ the IF above or below the frequency to which thereceiver is tuned:

6A468

A superheterodyne receiver is adjusted to 2738 kHz. The IF is 475 kHz. What is the grid circuit of thesecond detector tuned to?

6A469

A superheterodyne receiver may not successfully be used for reception of frequencies very near the IFfrequency:

6A47

The difference between electrical power and electrical energy is:

6A470

Some superheterodyne receives employ a crystal-controlled oscillator:

6A471

To obtain maximum response to weak CW signals with a superheterodyne receiver:

6A472

Most receiver hiss is due to:

6A473

High IF frequencies in a superheterodyne receiver:

6A474

What is the IF of a superheterodyne receiver receiving on 1000 kHz and the mixing oscillator is tuned to1500 kHz?

6A475

Image response may be minimized in a superheterodyne receiver:

6A476

In a tuned RF receiver the heterodyne method, over the autodyne reception, has:

6A477

A regenerative receiver's operation is:

6A478

Advantages of a stage of RF amplification are:

6A479

Disadvantages of a stage of RF amplification are:

6A48

A positive temperature coefficient means:

6A480

The sensitivity of a 3 circuit receiver is controlled by:

6A481

A regenerative, oscillating-detector receives directly coupled to an antenna:

6A482

Low sensitivity of a 3 circuit regenerative receiver might be caused by:

6A483

Some components of a three-circuit regenerative circuit tested in troubleshooting:

6A484

Noisy operation of a regenerative, 3-circuit receiver with two stages of AF amplification may be causedby:

6A485

How could you test a regenerative receiver to determine if the detector is oscillating?

6A486

How would you adjust a regenerative receiver without RF amplifier stages to receive radiotelegraphsignals through interference?

6A487

How would you reduce or eliminate broadcast signal interference of reception on 500 kHz?

6A488

To adjust a regenerative receiver for maximum sensitivity:

6A489

What type of radio receiver do not respond to static interference?

6A49

A liquid which is capable of conducting electricity, but undergoes decomposition while doing so is:

6A490

Audio howl may be caused by:

6A491

If signals are heard with headphones in the detector plate circuit of a receiver, but none are heard withheadphones in the first AF stage plate circuit, what might be the cause?

6A492

In the case of an open secondary winding in a coupling transformer causing no signal in the first AFstage, satisfactory repair could be made by:

6A493

An oscillator in a receiver operating on a frequency near the IF of the receiver:

6A494

Generally used to prevent any undesired frequencies from appearing in the output of a receiver:

6A495

By-pass capacitors across the cathode-bias resistors of an RF amplifier:

6A496

In general, shielding between RF amplifier stages:

6A497

Minimizes transfer of harmonic frequencies between two inductively coupled circuits:

6A498

An auxiliary receiving antenna on a ship with a radio direction finder:

6A499

Feeding back into the control grids of the IF and RF amplifiers a negative DC bias which is proportionedto the average magnitude of the received carrier wave accomplished:

6A5

When passing through areas of static charge, high voltages can accumulate on antennas which areinsulated from ground. What protects a connected receiver from damage?

6A50

The effective value of an RF current and the heating value of the current are:

6A500

The center-tap connection in a filament supply transformer:

6A501

A shorted grid capacitor in a three-circuit regenerative receiver would:

6A502

The first detector in a superheterodyne receiver:

6A503

The advantage of using iron cores of special construction in RF transformers and inductance?

6A504

The auto alarm receiver is tuned to ____ but is able to respond to signals from ____ to ____ (+/- 12.5kHz)

6A505

The auto-alarm signal is:

6A506

The determining factor of the setting of the sensitivity control of an auto-alarm receiver:

6A507

With an auto alarm that uses a square-law detector and a mechanical selector what causes the bell toring?

6A508

Intermittent ringing of the bells of an auto alarm with a linear detector and an electronic selector could becaused by:

6A509

An open filament on an auto-alarm with a linear detector and an electronic selector will:

6A51

One horsepower is:

6A510

The auto-alarm bell rings and the release button stops it:

6A511

If the auto-alarm bell rings and the release button doesn't stop it:

6A512

If the vacuum tube heater in an approved auto-alarm system burns out:

6A513

Unused portions of inductances in receivers are ____ to reduce any losses that might occur in theseunused windings:

6A514

Harmonic radiation by a transmitter may be prevented:

6A515

The keying circuit of the ships transmitter is disconnected:

6A516

Normal undistorted modulation is indicated by:

6A517

If a vacuum tube in the only RF stages of your receiver burned out, make a temporary repair by:

6A518

A ____ provides a very high degree of selectivity in a receiver:

6A519

The D'Arsonval type meter consists of:

6A52

What factors determine the heat generated in a conductor?

6A520

What is the purpose of multiplier resistance used with a voltmeter?

6A521

What is the purpose of a shunt as used with an ammeter?

6A522

What is indicated if a voltmeter connected between the negative side of a ship's DC line and ground readsthe full line voltage?

6A523

Why are copper oxide rectifiers, associated with DC voltmeters to measure AC, unsuitable for themeasurement of voltages at radio frequencies?

6A524

How may the power in a AC circuit be determined?

6A525

The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and ammeter in an AC circuit is called what?

6A526

Does an AC ammeter indicate peak, average, or effective values of current?

6A527

What types of meters may be used to measure RF currents?

6A528

How may the range of a thermocouple ammeter be increased?

6A529

By what factor must the voltage of an ac circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, bemultiplied to obtain the average voltage value?

6A53

What is the ratio of peak to average value of a sine wave?

6A530

By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, bemultiplied to obtain the peak value?

6A531

What is the meaning of "zero beat" as used in connection with frequency measuring equipment?

6A532

What is the directional reception pattern of a loop antenna?

6A533

What is the reception pattern of a vertical antenna?

6A534

What is the principal function of a vertical sense antenna associated with a unilateral radio directionfinder?

6A535

What figure represents the reception pattern of a properly adjusted unilateral radio direction finder?

6A536

From how many simultaneous directions is a direction finder capable of receiving signals if adjusted totake unilateral bearings through 360 degrees?

6A537

How is the unilateral effect obtained in a direction finder?

6A538

What is the function of the balancing capacitor in a direction finder?

6A539

What is indicated by the bearing obtained from the use of a bilateral radio direction finder?

6A54

When the current sine wave in a circuit reaches its peak value before the voltage wave:

6A540

On shipboard what factors may effect the accuracy of a direction finder after it has been properlyinstalled, calibrated?

6A541

What is indicated by the bearing obtained from the use of a unilateral radio direction finder?

6A542

Within what frequency band limits do all United States marine radio beacon stations operate?

6A543

In what part of the RF spectrum do marine radar systems operate?

6A544

Approximately at what speed does the antenna of a navigational radar rotate?

6A545

How should a radar set be adjusted by the operator to reduce "sea return"?

6A546

In determining a "fix" position by a marine LORAN system, what is the minimum number of landtransmitters involved?

6A547

What is the relationship between a master and a slave station in reference to LORAN navigationsystems?

6A548

How can the operator of a LORAN receiver on shipboard identify the transmitting stations that are beingreceived?

6A549

During daytime hours, approximately what is the maximum distance in nautical miles from LORANtransmitting stations from which LORAN lines of position can be determined?

6A55

An "harmonic" is:

6A550

What is the purpose of blinking in a loran navigational system?

6A551

What precautions should an operator or serviceman observe when working with cathode-ray tubes?

6A552

If the velocity of a radio wave is 186,000 statute miles per second, how many nautical miles does a radarpulse travel in one microsecond?

6A553

In all cases other than those in which the transmitter output must be maintained at a fixed value, whatamount of power should be employed for routine communications?

6A554

What is the definition of a "station open to public service"?

6A555

In the transmission of the international Morse code, what are the relative time lengths of dashes, dots?

6A556

Why is the clock on a compulsorily equipped ship radiotelegraph station required to have a sweep secondhand?

6A557

Between what points on a ship, compulsorily equipped with a radiotelegraph installation, is a reliableintercommunication system required?

6A558

Are there any age requirements that a person must meet before he can be issued a radiotelegraph operatorlicense?

6A559

Upon compulsorily equipped vessels which are required to have an accurate clock in the radio room, howfrequently must this clock be adjusted and be compared with standard time?

6A56

Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal impedance, maximum power will betransferred to the load when:

6A560

How frequently must an entry be made in a ship radiotelegraph log while a radio watch is beingmaintained?

6A561

At what time(s) are routine transmissions forbidden in the bands of 480 to 515 kHz?

6A562

What time system shell be used in making log entries with respect to the observance of the internationalsilent period?

6A563

What is the international radiotelegraph distress frequency for stations in the mobile service?

6A564

Describe how a distress call should be made:

6A565

What transmission should precede the transmission of the distress call?

6A566

What stations shall be in control of distress traffic?

6A567

During what periods must a distress message be repeated following the initial transmission?

6A568

For how long must mobile stations listen after hearing an urgency signal?

6A569

When the auto-alarm bell rings, what should the operator do?

6A57

When two sine waves of the same frequency do not reach their maximum or minimum valuessimultaneously:

6A570

What space of time should elapse between the transmission of the international auto-alarm signal and thedistress call?

6A571

While a vessel is at sea, how frequently must the auto-alarm be tested?

6A572

Upon hearing an SOS, what should an operator do?

6A573

What is the purpose of an auto-alarm signal keying device on a compulsorily equipped ship?

6A574

On a United States vessel equipped with an approved auto-alarm, where is the control button whichsilences the warning bells located?

6A575

With what type(s) of emission and upon what frequency should a transmitter be adjusted to transmit adistress call?

6A576

If you receive a distress call signed by a call signal composed of five letters, could you determine thetype of craft which transmitted the signal?

6A577

While the vessel is in the open sea, how frequently must the specific gravity of the emergency battery betaken?

6A578

How frequently must the quantity of fuel in the supply tank for use with an oil or gas driven emergencygenerator be checked while the vessel is in the open sea?

6A579

While a vessel is in port, how frequently should the emergency equipment be tested?

6A58

Which method may be used to obtain more than one value of voltage from a fixed DC source?

6A580

You intercept "CQ CQ WSV TFC"; what does this mean?

6A581

Explain the use and meaning of the following indicator or prefix "RP" on radiotelegrams:

6A582

Upon what band, in addition to the 350 to 515 kHz band must a main receiver on a United States ship becapable of operation?

6A583

After a distress call has been transmitted, every distress-traffic radiotelegram shall contain what symbolin the preamble?

6A584

For how long a period of continuous operation should the emergency power supply of a compulsorilyequipped ship station be capable of energizing the emergency radiotelegraph installation?

6A585

What is the principal port of the United States, on the Pacific coast, at which navigation lines terminate?

6A586

In what city is the major telecommunication center of the United States located?

6A587

Under what condition may an eligible person hold a radiotelegraph operator's license and a Marine RadioOperator permit?

6A588

How does a First Class Radiotelegraph Operator renew an unexpired license?

6A589

How does an eligible Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator upgrade his license to First Class?

6A59

The conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 A flows when 12 VDC is applied is:

6A590

What is the license term of the First Class Radiotelegraph Operator License?

6A591

What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system?

6A592

What is the experience requirement of a First Class Radiotelegrapher?

6A593

What examination requirements are necessary to obtain a Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator'sCertificate?

6A594

How does an applicant qualify for a Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate?

6A595

What examination credit is accorded Amateur Extra Class operators?

6A596

What must every examination for the code portion of a radiotelegraph license contain?

6A597

What answer format is accepted on commercial radiotelegraph license contain?

6A598

What is a requirement of all transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels?

6A599

What happens to a lower grade of Commercial Radiotelegraph License when a licensee qualifies for ahigher grade?

6A6

Vertical shipboard antennas for use in the MF band (410-525 kHz) are often fitted with top-hat loadingsections. What is the purpose of these structures?

6A60

Two 10 W, 500 ohm resistors in parallel will dissipate how many watts?

6A600

What is an operating control requirement of a ship station using telegraphy?

6A601

How does a radiotelegraph operator transmit a routine call to another station?

6A602

What is the proper procedure to conduct a radiotelegraph equipment test?

6A603

How often must a radiotelegraph station transmit its call sign when a transmission is maintained for morethan 20 minutes in the band 405-525 kHz?

6A604

When may a public coast station authorized to use high frequency narrow-band direct-printing (NB-DP)establish contact with a ship station using telegraphy?

6A605

Which operator is authorized to make equipment adjustments at maritime radio stations which may affecttransmitter operation?

6A606

Who may install, maintain or adjust radiotelephone transmitters which radiate less than 50 watts carrierpower?

6A607

Who may program authorized frequency channels into a transmitter or transceiver used in the maritimeservice?

6A608

What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of a high frequency radiotelegraphy signal, emission A1A,in the maritime service?

6A609

What is the maximum transmitter power that a ship station may radiate using radiotelegraphy emissionson frequencies below 27500 kHz?

6A61

A 20 ohm resistor with a current of 0.25 A passing through it will dissipate how many watts?

6A610

Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage?

6A611

How often must compulsory radiotelegraph installations on passenger vessels be inspected?

6A612

What is the antenna requirement aboard a survival craft equipped with a non-portable radiotelegraphinstallation?

6A613

What document is issued after a radio station inspection aboard a large ship that is not a passengervessel?

6A614

What is the minimum radio operator license requirement of a chief radio officer on U.S. passenger ships?

6A615

What is the order of priority of radiotelegraph communications in the maritime services?

6A616

What should a station operator do before making a transmission?

6A62

If the voltage to a circuit is doubled and the resistance is increased to three times the original value, whatwill be the final current?

6A63

If a vacuum tube with a filament rating of 0.25 A and 5 V is operated from a 6 volt battery, what value ofresistor is necessary?

6A64

The minimum power dissipation rating of a resistor of 20,000 ohms across a potential of 500 V shouldbe:

6A65

The total power dissipation capability of two 10 watt, 500 ohm resistors connected in series is:

6A66

What is the total power dissipation capability of two 10 watt 500 ohm resistors connected in parallel?

6A67

What is the maximum current carrying capacity of a resistor of 5000 ohms, 200 watts?

6A68

What is the total resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of a 10 ohm branch and a 25 ohm branch?

6A69

The current through two resistors in series is 3

6A7

Modern reserve transmitters are solid-state designs and transmit using only A2 modulation. Whenmeasuring transmitter center frequency, what precaution must be taken:

6A70

An 18 ohm and a 15 ohm resistor are connected in parallel; a 36 ohm resistor is connected in series withthis combination; a 22 ohm resistor is connected in parallel with this total combination. The total currentis 5

6A71

A circuit passes 3

6A72

A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 m

6A73

Given: Input power to a receiver is 75 watts. How much power does the receiver consume in 24 hours ofcontinuous operation?

6A74

The total reactance when two capacitances of equal value are connected in series is:

6A75

A capacitor's charge is stored:

6A76

The voltage drop across an individual capacitor of a group of capacitors connected in series across an ACsource is:

6A77

What is the total capacitance of the capacitors of 3, 5, and 7 microfarad connected in series?

6A78

If capacitors of 3, 5, and 7 microfarad are connected in parallel, what is the total capacitance?

6A79

How many capacitors of 400 volts and 2 microfarad each would be necessary to obtain a combinationrated at 1600 volts and 1.5 microfarad?

6A8

Voltage may be expressed by what other expression?

6A80

If a turn in an inductor is shorted:

6A81

The relationship between the number of turns and the inductance of a coil may be expressed by:

6A82

The formula for determining the resonant frequency of a circuit when the inductance and capacitance areknown is:

6A83

The formula for determining the wavelength when the frequency is known is:

6A84

The wavelength of the period of one complete cycle of a radio wave of 0.000,001 second is:

6A85

The efficiency of a radio device is:

6A86

What is the total impedance of a parallel capacitor and inductor with equal values of reactance?

6A87

The total inductance of two coils in parallel without any mutual coupling is:

6A88

What is the total reactance of a series AC circuit, with no resistance and equal inductance and capacitivereactances?

6A89

The total inductance of two coils in series without any mutual coupling is:

6A9

Amperage may also be known by:

6A90

One wave-length is:

6A91

In an AC circuit, a series inductance acting alone:

6A92

Shock excitation into an L-C circuit is the result of:

6A93

The term cathode ray usually applies to:

6A94

Shielding an RF inductance:

6A95

The tendency of a tank circuit to keep oscillating for a time after the excitation energy has been removedis:

6A96

Power factor is defined as:

6A97

High or low frequency oscillations occurring in circuits other than the original tank desired outputfrequencies are:

6A98

What are effects of parasitic oscillations?

6A99

The velocity of propagation of radio frequency waves in free space is: